Unknown2007-07-11 22:12:35
QUOTE(Demetrios @ Jul 11 2007, 10:48 PM) 424810
No, it isn't. Negative numbers and positive numbers have different identities, which is sort of the point. You can't observe negative numbers.
I didn't follow that example at all. What chickens did the wolf eat? And did your neighbor borrow negative four chickens from you? How'd that happen?
That aside, you still haven't done it. The "chickens" you propose are theoretical chickens (or, more dramatically, Chickens of Pure Logical Construction) that do not exist because their quantity is less than zero. They are not chickens that you observed. As soon as a quantity drops to zero, it is no longer available for observation or manipulation. I admit I'm a little flummoxed at how someone can contest this.
I didn't follow that example at all. What chickens did the wolf eat? And did your neighbor borrow negative four chickens from you? How'd that happen?
That aside, you still haven't done it. The "chickens" you propose are theoretical chickens (or, more dramatically, Chickens of Pure Logical Construction) that do not exist because their quantity is less than zero. They are not chickens that you observed. As soon as a quantity drops to zero, it is no longer available for observation or manipulation. I admit I'm a little flummoxed at how someone can contest this.
Let me rephrase, since it really wasn't clear, now that I look at it. "I borrowed 3 chickens from my neighbour. Wolf ate them, so I borrowed another 4. Now I owe my neighbour 7 chickens."
While the negative numbers do not exist in nature, their origin is empirical. Those 7 chickens do exist (or existed, until wolf ate 3 of them). The only matter here that makes them negative is the ownership. Negative numbers didn't appear for the sake of themselves, they came to life from subtraction.
QUOTE(Demetrios @ Jul 11 2007, 10:48 PM) 424810
Well, in the first place, all you asked me in your last post was if I believed math was proven by math and logic, which obviously I do, since I was the one that said it, first.
Now, if you're asking me if I think the laws of logic and higher math come from observation and people work their way backward from that, or if all them have empirical correlations that prove them, then no, no I don't, and nearly every empiricist up to Husserl agrees with me. Heck, it took many cultures centuries upon centuries to come up with "zero." Do you think none of them had ever observed the experience of... not having any more of something? What they were lacking was the rational entity of "zero."
I have never seen 999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999 of anything, and you probably haven't either, and I would even go out on a limb and bet that no one has. Yet, both of us can add, subtract, etc. from this number and perform all kinds of operations on it with no correlation to any observable experience whatsoever. No one has observed parallel lines, but we can conceive of them and operate with them. You might argue that I could, in my head, imagine five of something, then five more of something, then on and on until I get to a number that large, but nobody does math that way.
In fact, mathematics has numbers explicitly labeled as imaginary numbers to represent some of the constructs that are so theoretical, they don't even fit in with our common usage of numerical symbols.
First of all, empiricism is inductive, not deductive. Deduction is a theoretical process that reasons from premises. Reasoning from your experience is inductive and establishes probability. It goes like this:
"Every time I've dropped an object, it's always fallen to the ground. Therefore, objects will naturally fall to the ground."
Math and logic, by contrast, are -necessarily- true if performed without error. 3 + 4 = 7 and always will, no matter what science finds or how the planet might change.
Second of all, you're assuming the truth of your conclusion in your argument, thus:
That's the very idea that's being debated, here. You can't use your argument as a foundation for why your argument is true.
Now, if you're asking me if I think the laws of logic and higher math come from observation and people work their way backward from that, or if all them have empirical correlations that prove them, then no, no I don't, and nearly every empiricist up to Husserl agrees with me. Heck, it took many cultures centuries upon centuries to come up with "zero." Do you think none of them had ever observed the experience of... not having any more of something? What they were lacking was the rational entity of "zero."
I have never seen 999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999 of anything, and you probably haven't either, and I would even go out on a limb and bet that no one has. Yet, both of us can add, subtract, etc. from this number and perform all kinds of operations on it with no correlation to any observable experience whatsoever. No one has observed parallel lines, but we can conceive of them and operate with them. You might argue that I could, in my head, imagine five of something, then five more of something, then on and on until I get to a number that large, but nobody does math that way.
In fact, mathematics has numbers explicitly labeled as imaginary numbers to represent some of the constructs that are so theoretical, they don't even fit in with our common usage of numerical symbols.
First of all, empiricism is inductive, not deductive. Deduction is a theoretical process that reasons from premises. Reasoning from your experience is inductive and establishes probability. It goes like this:
"Every time I've dropped an object, it's always fallen to the ground. Therefore, objects will naturally fall to the ground."
Math and logic, by contrast, are -necessarily- true if performed without error. 3 + 4 = 7 and always will, no matter what science finds or how the planet might change.
Second of all, you're assuming the truth of your conclusion in your argument, thus:
That's the very idea that's being debated, here. You can't use your argument as a foundation for why your argument is true.
I'm not entirely sure if we understand each other on this. No, higher math does not come from empirical observations, it comes from lingering over issues previously thought up, formulated, and proven. I'm talking about that basic fact that their proof relies on validity of proof of each and every law or concept they call upon, down to the axioms. If they are all valid, the only weak point that remains is validity of the axioms.
Now, if we were into discussion about observation and perception defining the truth (or not), I do not dare to go there. I think everything we know about the world is subjective due to our way of perception and experiencing things. Therefore, the real status and behaviour of all there is might be entirely different (or not be at all, according to quantum theory). Question is, how much does it matter to us.
I will look up imaginary numbers as an example of your reasoning and see what's the deal with them, but that will have to wait for tomorrow.
And yes, it's induction. Bad wording on my part, sorry (those words are alike, seriously...).
Even though I haven't seen anything that correlates to such a big number, and I cannot imagine it due to my human limitations, I can induct (hope it's good this time ) subtracting 4 from 9 bazillion would have the same result as subtracting it from 5.
As for zero, the fact that human didn't think up everything right away when he became homo sapiens doesn't mean all his further inventions are not empirical.
QUOTE(Demetrios @ Jul 11 2007, 10:48 PM) 424810
I'm not a mathematician, either, and I would say that the sentiment, "I can't refute you, but I'm sure somebody out there could," is neither empirically proven nor a good reason for maintaining an argument. I could just as easily say, "I won't prove to you everything in the Bible is true, because I'm not a theologian, and even if I were, it would probably take a lot of time, space, and energy to prove it all the way down." Would you accept that?
Incidentally, time and energy cannot be empirically proven. I'll give you space, although some empiricists would not.
Incidentally, time and energy cannot be empirically proven. I'll give you space, although some empiricists would not.
There is a distinct difference. Religions claim existence of god cannot be proven and rely on faith. They don't even try. So, do you actually think somebody out there could? Mathematicians do try on the other hand, and do it. I've done some easy proves (and was tought many more, even though I never liked them for purely practical reasons), so based on that I will trust that all the other proves out there were also verified by math community (especially that disproving something previously considered true is an achievement for mathematicians, so they do, at least occasionaly, try).
Preemptively (just in case), let me say I don't want to go into "I'd have to do everything myself" argument.
QUOTE(Hazar @ Jul 11 2007, 11:22 PM) 424819
It's a theoretical construction based around postulates.
Physics - some of physics is empirical.
Physics - some of physics is empirical.
Elaborate on that, or, if you don't feel like it, point me somewhere online.
I ask for that because physics seems like nothing more than math put to use, at least considering the argument.
Empirical used in here, as I understand, means that something was formulated based on experience gathered from observation.
Unknown2007-07-11 22:40:32
QUOTE(Tajalli @ Jul 11 2007, 11:34 PM) 424821
I think that why math is becoming part of the debate, right now, is that (at least from what I've followed along with) it is being taken as empirical, so that is now a diversion from the topic.
It will probably end shortly, I for myself will either get convinced or drop it anyway.
Sorry for the derail.
@Verithrax
Your posts appear out of nowhere in the past of the thread!
That's hardly convenient.
Verithrax2007-07-11 23:53:31
Tell the mods to pull me out of mod preview so they show when I actually post them.
Xavius2007-07-12 00:07:48
QUOTE(Hazar @ Jul 11 2007, 04:22 PM) 424819
You're all assuming math is empirical.
Horseshit.
It's a theoretical construction based around postulates.
Physics - some of physics is empirical.
Horseshit.
It's a theoretical construction based around postulates.
Physics - some of physics is empirical.
Xinemus' post is going to take more time to respond to than I have right now, so you're unlucky target number one.
Math is empirical without being directly observed in every instance.
The recognition of patterns is no less empirical than the observation of patterns, so long as the pattern is of observed things. It is not unempirical to say two pennies weigh less than 784,301,004 pennies, even though the comparison has never been made. It is unempirical to say that the weight is because they participate only mildly in the form of Heavy, there are angels pulling down the balance, or the scale and pennies are strict mental constructs with no real existence (which is where the real hole in empiricism lies, if you have the urge to go the nihilistic route). If two pennies weigh twice as much as one penny and fourteen pennies weigh seven times as much as two pennies and fourteen times as much as one penny, you've got a sufficient basis to talk about the weight of 784,301,004 pennies.
The astrophysics student that most of the people still on this thread know likes to remind me that physics is a more empiric science than biology because of the inclusion of math. (She can usually be goaded to say something less pleasant about theoretical physicists shortly thereafter, but that's not the point.) Math is a quantifying tool and not much else. We have statistics to better quantify bulk research. We have algebra and calculus to describe patterns. Geometry and trigonometry give more information on bodies occupying space and time. I use Xinemus' favorite example, the square root, twice a day to explain to customers why a square yard has nine square feet instead of three--a very empiric reality, regardless of the presence of a 3' x 3' and 1' x 1' square in the house.
Yeralih2007-07-12 00:30:10
QUOTE(Xavius @ Jul 11 2007, 04:07 PM) 424853
The astrophysics student that most of the people still on this thread know likes to remind me that physics is a more empiric science than biology because of the inclusion of math.
I don't know if I've ever said that. I do have this ... problem with life sciences, though that stems from many more things than the fact that they use more arithmetic than mathematics.
QUOTE(Xavius @ Jul 11 2007, 04:07 PM) 424853
(She can usually be goaded to say something less pleasant about theoretical physicists shortly thereafter, but that's not the point.)
This, however, is correct. Most of them are full of crap.
Shiri2007-07-12 00:34:30
By "borrowed", Kashim means "lent". Lots of Europeans seem to have trouble with those words for some reason. His example makes sense.
Daganev2007-07-12 00:43:24
How is divide by zero empirical, but multiplication by 0 is not?
how does it empirically work that -X * -y = z but -x + -y = -z
In school, I was always told to just accept this, that is must be this way for other things to work. (with double negatives in english being used to explain how it works. Which doesn't explain addition at all.)
how does it empirically work that -X * -y = z but -x + -y = -z
In school, I was always told to just accept this, that is must be this way for other things to work. (with double negatives in english being used to explain how it works. Which doesn't explain addition at all.)
Daganev2007-07-12 00:46:09
QUOTE(Kashim @ Jul 11 2007, 03:12 PM) 424828
There is a distinct difference. Religions claim existence of god cannot be proven and rely on faith. They don't even try.
This is not true.
Most religions do claim that G-d can not be proven empirically though.
Quite a difference. There are plenty of ontological, rational, logical, and experiential proofs though.
Tajalli2007-07-12 00:47:08
Part of religion and faith in a god IS faith. That's the MAIN part.
Explaining and proving why the faith is there sort of negates the purpose of faith.
Explaining and proving why the faith is there sort of negates the purpose of faith.
Daganev2007-07-12 00:51:43
QUOTE(Tajalli @ Jul 11 2007, 05:47 PM) 424861
Part of religion and faith in a god IS faith. That's the MAIN part.
Explaining and proving why the faith is there sort of negates the purpose of faith.
Explaining and proving why the faith is there sort of negates the purpose of faith.
For some religions, not all.
Sometimes faith is just based on faith, but sometimes faith is based on knowledge.
Xavius2007-07-12 01:05:24
QUOTE(Shiri @ Jul 11 2007, 07:34 PM) 424857
By "borrowed", Kashim means "lent". Lots of Europeans seem to have trouble with those words for some reason. His example makes sense.
Actually, he means borrowed. People borrow money that banks lend. If he lent three chickens to his neighbor, he doesn't owe his neighbor a thing.
Hazar2007-07-12 01:13:37
I'd agree with Tajalli. Proving a belief defeats the purpose of faith.
Shiri2007-07-12 01:14:53
Oh hey, actually I just misread. Ignore!
EDIT: Lots of people seem to have trouble with those words anyway though!
EDIT: Lots of people seem to have trouble with those words anyway though!
Unknown2007-07-12 01:22:19
I think the original wording was something along the lines of his neighbor borrowing him four chickens, which is an improper use of the word borrow. The rephrasing is accurate, though.
Verithrax2007-07-12 01:22:58
QUOTE(Shiri @ Jul 11 2007, 09:34 PM) 424857
By "borrowed", Kashim means "lent". Lots of Europeans seem to have trouble with those words for some reason. His example makes sense.
In Romance languages, there's no distinction between borrowing and lending; the same verb is used for either, and we differentiate based on whether you borrow/lend something from someone or to someone.
On the other hand, we also have two different verbs which in most languages including English are coalesced into "to be", which is a source of endless amusement for us.
Unknown2007-07-12 15:56:18
Verithrax beat me to it on the 'borrow' and 'lend' issue.
It is exactly the reason why I still happen to confuse the two at times.
Out of curiosity, what is the difference between those two words for 'to be'?
Proof by contradiction
This a method of proof where, in order to prove something is true, you start out by assuming it isn't true! You then go through the implications of this, until you find something which contradicts one of the parts of your original hypothesis, or just can't be true.
The simplest example I can think of to illustrate it is this:
a/0 is not defined for any a.
Suppose that you could divide by zero.
Take any two numbers; I'll take 7 and 13. Now, 7x0=0, and 13x0=0 right?
So it's definitely true to say that 7*0=13*0.
If dividing by zero is all right, we can divide by zero on both sides of this equation to get (wait for it...)
7=13!!!!
This is clearly nonsense, so our assumption that you can divide by zero must have been false.
Proof by contradiction is based on empirically true basic logic tautology, ~(~p)<=>p.
As for multiplication by zero, I don't think I need to elaborate on that.
how does it empirically work that -X * -y = z but -x + -y = -z
One way to think of numbers is in terms of money. Let's say you and I are playing poker. To make life convenient, we use chips instead of real money. A green chip is worth $5. A red chip means that you owe $5. So if you lose $5, you can represent that by giving up a green chip, or (if you're out) by picking up a red chip. Of course, you are always allowed to pick up a green chip and a red chip at the same time, because that doesn't change your total sum. (At the end, presumably, we'll cash in all our chips and see who gains or loses what money.)
I hope you see the mathematical analogy I'm drawing here: A green chip represents +$5, and a red chip represents -$5.
(...)
And finally, what if you loose three red chips? Hooray! This is happy news, it means you have actually gained money. Mathematically, this is -3 (since you lost) times -$5 (since they were red chips). -3 x -$5 = +$15. Negative times negative is positive.
Quite empirical.
I have already provided the simplest example for negative numbers addition being empirical.
Which are the ones that claim otherwise?
It is exactly the reason why I still happen to confuse the two at times.
Out of curiosity, what is the difference between those two words for 'to be'?
QUOTE(daganev @ Jul 12 2007, 02:43 AM) 424858
How is divide by zero empirical, but multiplication by 0 is not?
QUOTE
Proof by contradiction
This a method of proof where, in order to prove something is true, you start out by assuming it isn't true! You then go through the implications of this, until you find something which contradicts one of the parts of your original hypothesis, or just can't be true.
The simplest example I can think of to illustrate it is this:
a/0 is not defined for any a.
Suppose that you could divide by zero.
Take any two numbers; I'll take 7 and 13. Now, 7x0=0, and 13x0=0 right?
So it's definitely true to say that 7*0=13*0.
If dividing by zero is all right, we can divide by zero on both sides of this equation to get (wait for it...)
7=13!!!!
This is clearly nonsense, so our assumption that you can divide by zero must have been false.
As for multiplication by zero, I don't think I need to elaborate on that.
QUOTE(daganev @ Jul 12 2007, 02:43 AM) 424858
how does it empirically work that -X * -y = z but -x + -y = -z
QUOTE
One way to think of numbers is in terms of money. Let's say you and I are playing poker. To make life convenient, we use chips instead of real money. A green chip is worth $5. A red chip means that you owe $5. So if you lose $5, you can represent that by giving up a green chip, or (if you're out) by picking up a red chip. Of course, you are always allowed to pick up a green chip and a red chip at the same time, because that doesn't change your total sum. (At the end, presumably, we'll cash in all our chips and see who gains or loses what money.)
I hope you see the mathematical analogy I'm drawing here: A green chip represents +$5, and a red chip represents -$5.
(...)
And finally, what if you loose three red chips? Hooray! This is happy news, it means you have actually gained money. Mathematically, this is -3 (since you lost) times -$5 (since they were red chips). -3 x -$5 = +$15. Negative times negative is positive.
Quite empirical.
I have already provided the simplest example for negative numbers addition being empirical.
QUOTE(daganev @ Jul 12 2007, 02:46 AM) 424859
Most religions do claim that G-d can not be proven empirically though.
Which are the ones that claim otherwise?
Unknown2007-07-12 18:28:16
I can't think of any mainstream religions that actually do claim that there is an empirical proof for God. This may be a case of weasel wording instead of an actual statement. Words like "most" and "some" are incredibly weaselly when used by themselves, as they provide meaning with no evidence. A non-weaselly way to state that sentence would be "Most religions do claim that God cannot be proven empirically, but there are a few notable exceptions such as Fictitious Religion and Made-Up Religion."
Unknown2007-07-12 19:07:38
This will be pretty long. I'm way behind and have to catch up!
To start with, you all seem to be saying the same basic thing, using different definitions. If I understand, Xavius & crew are saying that math (logic, etc) is emperical because you can take what is observed and deduce more complicated mathematics from it - ultimately, it is based on observation. Xinemus & crew are saying it is not empirical because it is not directly based on observation. This leads everything back to my original post a few pages ago...
People are again making the mistake of equating their conclusions to the theoretical process of empiricism. Empiricism is balanced, and can be used to reach all sorts of conclusions. Can mathematical concepts eventually be reached given a long line of empirical observations? Yes - in fact, that is how they came up. They started with counting the rocks, then grew more and more theoretical, but all of it was based on observation. Does that mean that the conclusion (i.e. later mathematical innovations, like calculus for example) are automatically factual? No. There could be some mistaken observation, or mixed up mathematical theory that leads to a faulty conclusion. We might someday find out that calculus is completely worthless and wrong, and have to scrap the entire field. Can we say that calculus is absolutely and certainly true? No.
It really doesn't matter whether we call math empirical or not - the base questions are:
1. Can truth be reached using empirical methods?
2. Do empirical methods always lead to truth?
3. Can truth be reached using any other methods?
I think we can all agree with #1. I would say no to #2, and yes to #3. The fact is that both Christians and Atheists can use empirical data to "prove" their point. The same is true of just about anything. As I said before, everyone uses the empirical method, but we tend to forget that all information (empirical or otherwise) passes through a filter of what we "know" (i.e. our beliefs) before we reach a conclusion.
The second issue was about the combination of faith and proof. Because of what I said above (all "proof" is filtered by our beliefs), the existence/nonexistence of God can never be proven. None of the central tenants of any religious belief can ever be absolutely, 100% proven to every person. There is, and there always will be, an aspect of doubt. However, do not fall into the trap of believing that "faith" means just taking something and believing it for no reason. In my understanding, the Hebrew concept of faith (which the three biggest world religious are based on) did not describe just believing something random, but examining several bits of evidences, then taking the leap to believe the conclusion, even if it cannot be absolutely proven. That is, in fact, what Christians, Atheists, YECs, OECs, Evolutionists, Jews, Hindus, Scientologists, and followers of every other belief system truly do.
People (Christians and Atheists seem especially guilty of this) like to pretend that their own system is the only one which can be logically reached, and that all others are based on ignorance and manipulation. If you really want to make progress, get past the arrogance, and move on to actually examining the other options. That means reading books by people who don't agree with you, and examining the hard questions. Having done so (somewhat) I believe that Christianity is the most likely - independent of my personal, spiritual position, I believe it is also the most logical, based on "empirical" and "logical" methods.
To start with, you all seem to be saying the same basic thing, using different definitions. If I understand, Xavius & crew are saying that math (logic, etc) is emperical because you can take what is observed and deduce more complicated mathematics from it - ultimately, it is based on observation. Xinemus & crew are saying it is not empirical because it is not directly based on observation. This leads everything back to my original post a few pages ago...
People are again making the mistake of equating their conclusions to the theoretical process of empiricism. Empiricism is balanced, and can be used to reach all sorts of conclusions. Can mathematical concepts eventually be reached given a long line of empirical observations? Yes - in fact, that is how they came up. They started with counting the rocks, then grew more and more theoretical, but all of it was based on observation. Does that mean that the conclusion (i.e. later mathematical innovations, like calculus for example) are automatically factual? No. There could be some mistaken observation, or mixed up mathematical theory that leads to a faulty conclusion. We might someday find out that calculus is completely worthless and wrong, and have to scrap the entire field. Can we say that calculus is absolutely and certainly true? No.
It really doesn't matter whether we call math empirical or not - the base questions are:
1. Can truth be reached using empirical methods?
2. Do empirical methods always lead to truth?
3. Can truth be reached using any other methods?
I think we can all agree with #1. I would say no to #2, and yes to #3. The fact is that both Christians and Atheists can use empirical data to "prove" their point. The same is true of just about anything. As I said before, everyone uses the empirical method, but we tend to forget that all information (empirical or otherwise) passes through a filter of what we "know" (i.e. our beliefs) before we reach a conclusion.
The second issue was about the combination of faith and proof. Because of what I said above (all "proof" is filtered by our beliefs), the existence/nonexistence of God can never be proven. None of the central tenants of any religious belief can ever be absolutely, 100% proven to every person. There is, and there always will be, an aspect of doubt. However, do not fall into the trap of believing that "faith" means just taking something and believing it for no reason. In my understanding, the Hebrew concept of faith (which the three biggest world religious are based on) did not describe just believing something random, but examining several bits of evidences, then taking the leap to believe the conclusion, even if it cannot be absolutely proven. That is, in fact, what Christians, Atheists, YECs, OECs, Evolutionists, Jews, Hindus, Scientologists, and followers of every other belief system truly do.
People (Christians and Atheists seem especially guilty of this) like to pretend that their own system is the only one which can be logically reached, and that all others are based on ignorance and manipulation. If you really want to make progress, get past the arrogance, and move on to actually examining the other options. That means reading books by people who don't agree with you, and examining the hard questions. Having done so (somewhat) I believe that Christianity is the most likely - independent of my personal, spiritual position, I believe it is also the most logical, based on "empirical" and "logical" methods.
Verithrax2007-07-12 19:43:23
QUOTE(mitbulls @ Jul 12 2007, 04:07 PM) 425102
This will be pretty long. I'm way behind and have to catch up!
To start with, you all seem to be saying the same basic thing, using different definitions. If I understand, Xavius & crew are saying that math (logic, etc) is emperical because you can take what is observed and deduce more complicated mathematics from it - ultimately, it is based on observation. Xinemus & crew are saying it is not empirical because it is not directly based on observation. This leads everything back to my original post a few pages ago...
People are again making the mistake of equating their conclusions to the theoretical process of empiricism. Empiricism is balanced, and can be used to reach all sorts of conclusions. Can mathematical concepts eventually be reached given a long line of empirical observations? Yes - in fact, that is how they came up. They started with counting the rocks, then grew more and more theoretical, but all of it was based on observation. Does that mean that the conclusion (i.e. later mathematical innovations, like calculus for example) are automatically factual? No. There could be some mistaken observation, or mixed up mathematical theory that leads to a faulty conclusion. We might someday find out that calculus is completely worthless and wrong, and have to scrap the entire field. Can we say that calculus is absolutely and certainly true? No.
It really doesn't matter whether we call math empirical or not - the base questions are:
1. Can truth be reached using empirical methods?
2. Do empirical methods always lead to truth?
3. Can truth be reached using any other methods?
I think we can all agree with #1. I would say no to #2, and yes to #3. The fact is that both Christians and Atheists can use empirical data to "prove" their point. The same is true of just about anything. As I said before, everyone uses the empirical method, but we tend to forget that all information (empirical or otherwise) passes through a filter of what we "know" (i.e. our beliefs) before we reach a conclusion.
The second issue was about the combination of faith and proof. Because of what I said above (all "proof" is filtered by our beliefs), the existence/nonexistence of God can never be proven. None of the central tenants of any religious belief can ever be absolutely, 100% proven to every person. There is, and there always will be, an aspect of doubt. However, do not fall into the trap of believing that "faith" means just taking something and believing it for no reason. In my understanding, the Hebrew concept of faith (which the three biggest world religious are based on) did not describe just believing something random, but examining several bits of evidences, then taking the leap to believe the conclusion, even if it cannot be absolutely proven. That is, in fact, what Christians, Atheists, YECs, OECs, Evolutionists, Jews, Hindus, Scientologists, and followers of every other belief system truly do.
People (Christians and Atheists seem especially guilty of this) like to pretend that their own system is the only one which can be logically reached, and that all others are based on ignorance and manipulation. If you really want to make progress, get past the arrogance, and move on to actually examining the other options. That means reading books by people who don't agree with you, and examining the hard questions. Having done so (somewhat) I believe that Christianity is the most likely - independent of my personal, spiritual position, I believe it is also the most logical, based on "empirical" and "logical" methods.
To start with, you all seem to be saying the same basic thing, using different definitions. If I understand, Xavius & crew are saying that math (logic, etc) is emperical because you can take what is observed and deduce more complicated mathematics from it - ultimately, it is based on observation. Xinemus & crew are saying it is not empirical because it is not directly based on observation. This leads everything back to my original post a few pages ago...
People are again making the mistake of equating their conclusions to the theoretical process of empiricism. Empiricism is balanced, and can be used to reach all sorts of conclusions. Can mathematical concepts eventually be reached given a long line of empirical observations? Yes - in fact, that is how they came up. They started with counting the rocks, then grew more and more theoretical, but all of it was based on observation. Does that mean that the conclusion (i.e. later mathematical innovations, like calculus for example) are automatically factual? No. There could be some mistaken observation, or mixed up mathematical theory that leads to a faulty conclusion. We might someday find out that calculus is completely worthless and wrong, and have to scrap the entire field. Can we say that calculus is absolutely and certainly true? No.
It really doesn't matter whether we call math empirical or not - the base questions are:
1. Can truth be reached using empirical methods?
2. Do empirical methods always lead to truth?
3. Can truth be reached using any other methods?
I think we can all agree with #1. I would say no to #2, and yes to #3. The fact is that both Christians and Atheists can use empirical data to "prove" their point. The same is true of just about anything. As I said before, everyone uses the empirical method, but we tend to forget that all information (empirical or otherwise) passes through a filter of what we "know" (i.e. our beliefs) before we reach a conclusion.
The second issue was about the combination of faith and proof. Because of what I said above (all "proof" is filtered by our beliefs), the existence/nonexistence of God can never be proven. None of the central tenants of any religious belief can ever be absolutely, 100% proven to every person. There is, and there always will be, an aspect of doubt. However, do not fall into the trap of believing that "faith" means just taking something and believing it for no reason. In my understanding, the Hebrew concept of faith (which the three biggest world religious are based on) did not describe just believing something random, but examining several bits of evidences, then taking the leap to believe the conclusion, even if it cannot be absolutely proven. That is, in fact, what Christians, Atheists, YECs, OECs, Evolutionists, Jews, Hindus, Scientologists, and followers of every other belief system truly do.
People (Christians and Atheists seem especially guilty of this) like to pretend that their own system is the only one which can be logically reached, and that all others are based on ignorance and manipulation. If you really want to make progress, get past the arrogance, and move on to actually examining the other options. That means reading books by people who don't agree with you, and examining the hard questions. Having done so (somewhat) I believe that Christianity is the most likely - independent of my personal, spiritual position, I believe it is also the most logical, based on "empirical" and "logical" methods.
You don't understand empiricism, however. The scientific method (A codified form of empiricism) does not deal with proof (That's why I've been careful not to use the word "proof" lately - it's misleading.)
Proof is for mathematics and alcohol. Which is why mathematics is an abstract constructed system, and not a direct representation of reality - although empirically demonstrated as an useful model of reality which has predictive powers, it can't be dealt with the way Xinemus has, as if it's a scientific theory. It's not; it's a model, an abstraction. Abstractions don't have truth values; you can't say math is true. You can, however, say it's useful, which is enough.
In empiricism as it is understood by modern science however, we deal with evidence, and not proofs; nothing is 100% certain, but we, through induction and deductive reasoning, are able to reach conclusions based on evidence. There is clearly no real evidence for the existence of god (Or any variation on the theme, like Santa). Thus, we come to the conclusion that it is more likely than not that there is no god.
Theists, at least the reasonable ones, do the same thing except they take random things as evidence for god - like love, or morality, or consciousness. Ultimately that is simply "I do not understand x; x therefore god" which is an ultimately unconvincing argument for the existence of anything.
Daganev2007-07-12 19:55:23
QUOTE(Kashim @ Jul 12 2007, 08:56 AM) 425060
Verithrax beat me to it on the 'borrow' and 'lend' issue.
It is exactly the reason why I still happen to confuse the two at times.
Out of curiosity, what is the difference between those two words for 'to be'?
Proof by contradiction is based on empirically true basic logic tautology, ~(~p)<=>p.
As for multiplication by zero, I don't think I need to elaborate on that.
Quite empirical.
I have already provided the simplest example for negative numbers addition being empirical.
Which are the ones that claim otherwise?
It is exactly the reason why I still happen to confuse the two at times.
Out of curiosity, what is the difference between those two words for 'to be'?
Proof by contradiction is based on empirically true basic logic tautology, ~(~p)<=>p.
As for multiplication by zero, I don't think I need to elaborate on that.
Quite empirical.
I have already provided the simplest example for negative numbers addition being empirical.
Which are the ones that claim otherwise?
Though that may look empirical, I do not believe those examples are. They are creating symbols and using rules which depend on the assumption to prove the point. In other words, dividing by zero breaks the rules of mathmatics and renders the math meaningless, but if one was inclined, they would call this a contradiction in math which proves if falseness., and saying that you can't divide by zero, is just apologetics.
Similarly, when you lose 3 red chips, you do not make $15. Rather, you no longer owe $15. You are not losing, but you are also not gaining.
As for religions, many people look at miracles and say they are empirical proofs. A person who does not believe in miracles, will say they have an explanation, even if they don't know what it is.
But the very concept of a miracle, is the concept of empirical proof for G-d's existence.